Pastor Vitale:  These are the two Scriptures I asked you about, and you asked me to send them to you.

Matthew 7:22-23: Many will say to Me on the day, Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many miracles?

23:  And then I will declare to them, I never knew you, depart from Me, you who practice lawlessness.

John 17:3: And this is eternal life, that they may know Thee, the only true God and Jesus Christ whom Thou hast sent.

I was asking the question: Jesus in Matthew was saying I never knew you, Jesus in John was saying that they (the disciples) may know Thee.   So, we need to know Him, and He needs to know us.  If we know Him, does He know us?

I just wondered what the difference is, if there is any difference.  Could it be that in Matthew 7 that the people did those miracles but not out of Christ Jesus?

Thanks.  Love - XXX

 

Pastor Vitale's response:

It is impossible to know Him if does not know us first.

The two occurrences of the English word "know" that you cite above are both a translation of the same Greek word. In the first instance, "that they may know you" this Greek word should be translated "to perceive." Mortal man cannot perceive or recognize God, unless he is given permission to do so.

In the second instance, "I never knew you," the report should be translated "to be intimately familiar with" (spiritual sexual intimacy).

 

God bless you,

Sheila R. Vitale,

Pastor, Teacher & Founder

Living Epistles Ministries